how would we go about solving the Falkner Skan equation numerically?
The equation is
$$f'''+ff''+\beta\left(1-f'^2\right)=0$$ $$f(0) = f'(0) = 0$$ $$f'(\infty) = 1$$
I tried using ODE45 to solve this but realised an $f''(0)$ condition is lacking and moreover, how is one supposed to deal with $f'(\infty) = 1$?
Thanks in advance for any incoming comments!
This is a boundary value problem (BVP), not an initial value problem (IVP). We can solve it using MATLAB's ODE45 solver by converting it from a BVP to an IVP through the shooting method. The general idea is the following:
Here are a few points (and some MATLAB code) for the implementation of the shooting method to this problem. Firstly, we need to rewrite our equation $$ f''' + ff'' + \beta(1-f'^2) =0$$ as a system of first order equations. This is not too difficult: $$ f' = g, $$ $$ g' = h, $$ $$ h' = -fh - \beta(1-g^2).$$ The corresponding function in MATLAB to be used with the ODE45 solver is something like:
And an implementation of the shooting method is:
In the code above I've used the secant method to make my sensible guesses and instead of solving from $0$ to infinity I've chosen a value of $5$ as my right hand endpoint. The code is uncommented, but it's only 25 lines long and there is nothing mysterious going on in it so you should be able to follow it fairly easily. Let me know if you have questions.