Yes, this is a canned question, because canned questions are simply solvable to understand ideas. No, this is not homework.
For simplicity, let's assign values.
A given object weights 1000 kg, it only has one force acting on it, and that's friction: $F_{t} = -200*v(t)$.
Let's say, after 5 seconds, what is its final velocity?
In case you haven't brushed up on your physics lately, here's a rundown of my mathematical problem.
F = ma, so a = F/m. With the numbers above, that means $a = \dfrac{-v}{5}$.
If I want to know final velocity after 5 seconds, it will basically be
$$30 - \int_0^5 -v/5 \,dt= ??$$ ..two different variables.
I believe the answer should involve ln (or e), but I can't seem to set it up correctly.
The acceleration of an object is the derivative of its velocity. The force acting on the object produces an acceleration according to the usual rule $F = ma$. The equation you get is $$1000 v'(t) = -200 v(t).$$ In other words, $v'(t) = - \frac 15 v(t)$ which has the general solution $v(t) = v(0)e^{-\frac 15 t}$.
If $v(0) = 30$, you get $v(5) = \frac{30}{e}$.