I tried:
$\lim_{x \rightarrow 0^+}(e^{\frac{1}{x}}x^2) = x^2 \cdot \frac{1}{e^{-\frac{1}{x}}} = \frac{x^2}{e^{-\frac{1}{x}}} = ???$
I thought maybe I could use $y = - \frac{1}{x}$, but I don't know what to do next.
I know the limit just by looking a the function: $\lim_{x \rightarrow 0^+} e^{\frac{1}{x}} = \infty $ and $\lim_{x \rightarrow 0^+} x^2 \rightarrow$ values close to 0 but greater than zero. And so the answer is $\infty$ but this looks incomplete. How do I solve this analitically?
Without using L'Hopital but although it looks same,
$x=\dfrac{1}{t}\\$ , $\displaystyle L = \lim_{t\to\infty}\dfrac{e^t}{t^2} = \lim_{t\to\infty}\dfrac{1+t+\dfrac{t^2}{2!}+\cdots}{t^2} = \dfrac{1}{2}+ \lim_{t\to\infty}\left(\dfrac{t}{3!}+\dfrac{t^2}{4!}+\cdots\right)=\infty$