$$\lim_{x\to 0} (\ln (x+e))^{\cot x}$$
Since we have an indeterminate form of $1^{\infty }$, we should simplify in a way that we can transform the expression into e to the power of something, but I can't find a way.
The use of l'Hôpital's rule or series is prohibited.
First of all, you want to compute the limit of the logarithm of your function: $$ \lim_{x\to0}\cot x\ln(\ln(x+e)) $$ The first step is almost obvious: note that $$ \lim_{x\to0}x\cot x=\lim_{x\to0}\frac{x}{\sin x}\cos x=1 $$ so you can reduce to computing $$ \lim_{x\to0}\frac{\ln(\ln(x+e))}{x} $$ because if this limit exists it will be equal to the one you want to compute.
How do we do this one? Let's do the substitution $x=et$, so it becomes $$ \lim_{t\to0}\frac{\ln(\ln e+\ln(1+t))}{et}= \lim_{t\to0}\frac{\ln(1+\ln(1+t))}{et} $$ Not yet in the best form. Let's do a new substitution: $\ln(1+t)=u$, that is, $t=e^u-1$, so we get $$ \frac{1}{e}\lim_{u\to0}\frac{\ln(1+u)}{e^u-1}= \frac{1}{e}\lim_{u\to0}\frac{\ln(1+u)}{u}\frac{u}{e^u-1}=… $$
Of course, using l'Hôpital is easier and doesn't require imagination: $$ \lim_{x\to0}\frac{\ln(\ln(x+e))}{\tan x}= \lim_{x\to0}\frac{\dfrac{1}{\ln(x+e)}\dfrac{1}{x+e}}{1+\tan^2x}=\frac{1}{e} $$