Given:
$4 dx + 2 {cos(y)\over sin(y)} dy = 0, \qquad y(0) = {\pi\over 2}$
I've already test the exactness which is $0$ for the result of both derivatives.
Then I found the potential function is $u(x,y) = 4x + 2 ln (sin(y))$
But I don't know how to find the explicit solution for $y(x)$
Because when I find $u(0,{\pi\over 2})$, the result is $0$
or do I have to find $y$ from $4x + 2 ln (sin(y)) = 0$ ? I thought it's an implicit solution.
Many thanks for your help.
$$4 dx + 2 {\cos(y)\over \sin(y)} dy = 0$$
Note that the ODE is sperable. We can simpliy integrate it:
$$4x+2\ln|\sin(y)|=c.$$
Apply IV (initial value):
$$4\cdot 0+2\ln|\sin(\pi/2)|=c \implies c=0.$$
$$2\ln|\sin(y)|=-4x \implies \ln|\sin(y)|=-2x \implies |\sin(y)|=\exp(-2x).$$
As our IV was $y=\pi/2$, we can assume $y \in (0,\pi)$. This implies that the absolute value is positive. Hence,
$$\sin(y)=\exp(-2x) \implies y = \arcsin\left[\exp(-2x)\right]$$