I'm trying to figure out a passage for reducing a vectorial equations ! for doing this somebody told me to use a program of symbolic calculation (matlab,maple, mathematical .. or python as well .. ) I never using symbolic calculation .. but i'm confiding in your knowledge for figure out how to solve my problem ! here the equation :
$$ \mathbf{v}_l + \mathbf{A} \times \mathbf{v}_l = \mathbf{B} $$
where
$$ \mathbf{A} = \frac{D}{D_0}\mathbf{s'}, $$ $$ \mathbf{B} = \frac{\rho_s k}{D_0}(\mathbf{V_s+v_s}) -\frac{D_t}{D_0}\mathbf{v_n}+\frac{D}{D_0}\mathbf{s'}\times \mathbf{v_n}+\frac{\chi}{D_0}\mathbf{s'} $$ where $\chi $ is a generic constant. The solution of the first equations is: $$\mathbf{v}_l = \frac{1}{(1+A^2)}[\mathbf{B}-\mathbf{A}\times\mathbf{B} + (\mathbf{A} \cdot \mathbf{B} ) \mathbf{A} ] $$
how this solution comes from ??? I found it in the paper paper (eq 14) I'm wait for your precious Help !! thanks in advance
I add the pdf on the web
Hint:
I suppose that your vectors are in $3$D space. In tis case , if $\mathbf A=(A_x,A_y,A_z)^T$, we can represent the cross product as a matrix operation as: $$ \mathbf A \times \mathbf v_l=\mathbf A_{[\times]}\mathbf v_l=\begin{pmatrix} 0&-A_z&A_y\\ A_z&0&-A_x\\ -A_y&A_x&0 \end{pmatrix} \mathbf v_l $$ So your equation becomes: $$ \left(\mathbf I+ \mathbf A_{[\times]}\right)\mathbf v_l=\mathbf B $$
and the solution is: $$ \mathbf v_l=\left(\mathbf I+ \mathbf A_{[\times]}\right)^{-1} \mathbf B $$ If you calculate the inverse matrix $$ \left(\mathbf I+ \mathbf A_{[\times]}\right)^{-1}= \begin{pmatrix} 1&-A_z&A_y\\ A_z&1&-A_x\\ -A_y&A_x&1 \end{pmatrix}^{-1} $$ I think that you can find the result.
Using WolframAlpha I found: $$ \begin{pmatrix} 1&-A_z&A_y\\ A_z&1&-A_x\\ -A_y&A_x&1 \end{pmatrix}^{-1}= \frac{1}{A_x^2+A_y^2+A_z^2+1} \begin{pmatrix} 1+A_x^2&A_xA_y+A_z&A_xA_z-A_y\\ A_xA_y-A_z&1+A_y^2&A_x+A_yA_z\\ A_y+A_xA_z&A_yA_z-A_x&1+A_z^2\\ \end{pmatrix}= $$
$$=\frac{1}{1+A^2}\left[ \begin{pmatrix} 1&0&0\\ 0&1&0\\ 0&0&1\\ \end{pmatrix}+ \begin{pmatrix} 0&A_z&-A_y\\ -A_z&0&A_x\\ A_y&-A_x&0\\ \end{pmatrix}+ \begin{pmatrix} A_x^2&A_xA_y&A_xA_z\\ A_xA_y&A_y^2&A_yA_z\\ A_xA_z&A_yA_z&A_z^2\\ \end{pmatrix} \right] $$
And multiplying by $\mathbf B=(B_x,B_y,B_z)^T$ you can find the result in a form that is the same as in OP. The only difference is the factor $\frac{1}{1+A^2}$. Maybe a sign typo in the question or in the solution?