Solve $x^2+2=y^3$ using infinite descent?

Question

Just so this doesn't get deleted, I want to make it clear that I already know how to solve this using the UFD $\mathbb{Z}[\sqrt{-2}]$, and am in search for the infinite descent proof that Fermat claimed to have found.

I've alaways been fascinated by this Diophantine equation $x^2+2=y^3$ in particular ever since I saw it, and I still have no clue how to attack it without $\mathbb{Z}[\sqrt{-2}]$. What's disappointing is that no one else seems interested in the hunt (an elementary proof using infinite descent). I know it's been studied extensively, and there have even been generalizations, such as Mordell's equation. However, I've never seen Fermat's original proof that $(x,y)=(\pm 5, 3)$ is the only integer solution. Obviously, Fermat probably knew nothing of UFD's, which is why I believe there has to be an infinite descent proof like he claimed. Has anyone apart from him actually seen this proof? People mention it all the time, yet I can't find anything about it. As I said, I know that it involved infinite descent, but I've never seen it anywhere and no one seems to have any idea about it.

Does anyone have ideas for this approach? I mean, infinite descent seems more effective for showing a contradiction, e.g. showing there are no solutions. But how could it work here? Also, why isn't it published anywhere in all this time? Could it really be that only Fermat knew his method of descent well-enough to make this problem submit to it?

Thanks!

Answer 1

A definitive (?) answer to your question can be found on page 561 of the Nov 2012 edition of The Mathematical Gazette, where a totally elementary descent mechanism first used by Stan Dolan in the March 2012 edition is adapted (as per his challenge to the “interested reader”) to solve Fermat’s two “elliptic curve” theorems. The method uses math which was clearly available in Fermat’s time, and in particular to Fermat himself.

I personally believe this finally puts to rest any questions of whether Fermat could have had a proof of these two claims.

Answer 2

Lemma. Let $a$ and $b$ be coprime integers, and let $m$ and $n$ be positive integers such that $a^2+2b^2=mn$. Then there are coprime integers $r$ and $s$ such that $m=r^2+2s^2$ divides $br-as$. Furthermore, for any such choice of $r$ and $s$, there are coprime integers $t$ and $u$ such that $a=rt-2su$, $b=ru+st$, and $n=t^2+2u^2$ divides $bt-au$.

Proof. Assume the theorem is false, and let $m$ be a minimal counterexample. Evidently $m > 1$ since the theorem is trivially true for $m=1$.

Note that $b$ is coprime to $m$. Let $A$ be an integer such that $Ab \equiv a\!\pmod{m}$, chosen so that $\tfrac{-m}{2} < A \le \tfrac{m}{2}$. Then $A^2+2 = lm$ for some positive integer $l < m$. Clearly $l$ cannot be a smaller counterexample than $m$, and so there exist coprime integers $r$ and $s$ such that $m=r^2+2s^2$ divides $br-as$.

Let $t = \tfrac{ar+2bs}{m}$ and $u=\tfrac{br-as}{m}$. Direct calculation confirms the equations for $a$, $b$, and $n$. From $n=t^2+2u^2$, we deduce that $t$ is an integer because $u$ is an integer, and $t$ and $u$ are coprime because $\gcd(t,u)$ divides both $a$ and $b$. Finally, note that $n$ divides $bt-au=sn$.

Hence $m$ is not a counterexample, contradicting the original assumption. $\blacksquare$

Corollary. Let $a$ and $b$ be coprime integers with $m$ an integer such that $m^3=a^2+2b^2$. Then there are coprime integers $r$ and $s$ such that $a=r(r^2-6s^2)$ and $b=s(3r^2-2s^2)$.

Proof. Evidently $m$ is odd since $a^2+2b^2$ is at most singly even. And $a$ and $m$ must be coprime. Using the theorem, we have $m=r^2+2s^2$ and $m^2=t^2+2u^2$. Then $m$ divides $a(ur-ts)=t(br-as)-r(bt-au)$, and therefore $m \mid (ur-ts)$. The lemma can then be reapplied with $a$ and $b$ replaced by $t$ and $u$. Repeating the process, we eventually obtain integers $p$ and $q$ such that $p^2+2q^2=1$. The only solution is $q=0$ and $p=\pm1$. Ascending the path back to $a$ and $b$ (reversing signs along the way, if necessary) yields $a=r(r^2-6s^2)$ and $b=s(3r^2-2s^2)$, as claimed. $\blacksquare$

Theorem. The Diophantine equation $X^3 = Y^2+2$ has only one integer solution, namely $(x,y) = (3, \pm 5)$.

Proof. Evidently $y$ and $2$ are coprime. By the corollary, we must have $b=1=s(3r^2-2s^2)$ for integers $r$ and $s$. The only solutions are $(r,s)=(\pm 1,1)$. Hence $a=y=r(r^2-6s^2)=\pm 5$, so $(x,y)=(3,\pm 5)$. $\blacksquare$