I was given the following equation: $$x^3-3y^3 + 6y^2 - 16x + 8 = 0$$ with $x, y \in \mathbb{Z}$.
I need to solve it in $\mathbb{Z}^2$. I have already the answer: The equation is not solvable in $\mathbb{Z}^2$.
I have a problem to understand the approach behind the answer, which states that in order to solve the equation in $\mathbb{Z}^2$ it is sufficient to solve it in $\mathbb{Z}/3\mathbb{Z}.$
Could anyone explain the idea behind this approach?
The idea is to say that if the polynomial can be equal to zero, it must definitely be able to represent some number which is a multiple of $3$ because $0=0\cdot 3$.
But if we are looking for a multiple of $3$ as a value, we can throw out any multiple of $3$ we like - which is essentially what we mean by working modulo $3$.
Of course we could find that the polynomial could be a multiple of $3$, but that wouldn't mean it had a solution.
Throwing out multiples of $3$ here is good to try because it gets rid of the terms involving $y$ and strategic adjustment by multiples of $3$ leaves $x^3-x-1$. Now little Fermat or the fact that $x^3-x=(x-1)\cdot x\cdot (x+1)$ tells us that $x^3-x$ is always a multiple of $3$ so we can delete that too and end up with $-1$ which is never a multiple of $3$. Since our polynomial represents only numbers which leave a remainder of $-1$ when divided by $3$, it can never represent a multiple of $3$ and can therefore never take the value zero.