Exercise :
Solve the Initial Value Problem (IVP) : $$2xy \cdot u_x + u_y - u = 0$$ $$u(x,0) = x$$
Attempt :
The functions $a(x,y) = 2xy$, $c(x,y) = 1$, $f(x,y) = 0$ are $C^1$ in an open set including the random point $(x_0,0)$ of the $x-$axis, while the function $\phi(x) = x$ is also $C^1$ in an open interval including the point $x_0$. Thus, via a known lemma, there exists a unique solution for the IVP in a neighborhood of $(x_0,0)$.
Yielding the Lagrange problem :
$$\frac{\mathrm{d}x}{2xy} = \frac{\mathrm{d}y}{1} = \frac{\mathrm{d}u}{u}$$
Question : Moving from here on, how would one yield the results that Wolfram Alpha calculates here ?
You have that $\frac{dx}{x} = 2ydy$. Integrating you get $\ln(x) = y^2 + C$
By integrating $\frac{du}{u} = dy$ we get $\ln(u) = y + f(C)$ and so $\ln(u) = y + f(\ln(x) - y^2)$ is your general solution for some real-valued differentiable function $f$.
To find the particular solution evaluate at $(x,0)$ to get:
$$\ln(x) = f(\ln(x)) \implies f(t) = t$$
Finally the wanted solution is:
$$\ln(u) = y - y^2 + \ln(x) \implies \boxed{u(x,y) = xe^{y-y^2}}$$
To get the general solution that Wolfram Alpha gives just exponentiate both sides and the set $F = e^f$ in my solution. Also the factor of $\frac 12$ is irrelevant as we take $f$ to be any real-valued differentiable function $f$.
I'm not sure why Wolfram takes $\pm$ in front of $y$. I mean the $-$ sign doesn't give you a solution. Take $F \equiv 1$ then $u=e^{-y}$, assuming $y$ is positive. However then we have:
$$2xyu_x + u_y - u = -e^{-y} - e^{-y} = -2e^{-y} \not = 0$$