I came across this limit and it was told that we should not use L'Hopital's rules for this one:
$$ \lim _{x\to 0\:}\left(\frac{\left(1+x\right)^a-1}{x}\right) $$
I can't see a way to get around that x on the denominator, I can't expand the binomial because it's an unknown.. Any solutions? Is it even possible without L'Hopital?
We will evaluate the limit using only standard inequalities and the squeeze theorem. To that end, we begin with a short primer.
First, note that we can write $(1+x)^a=e^{a\log(1+x)}$. Then, using $(1)$ and $(2)$ we find that for $ax<1$
$$\frac{a}{x+1}\le\frac{(1+x)^a-1}{x}\le \frac{a}{1-ax}\tag3$$
whence applying the squeeze theorem to $(3)$ yields the coveted limit