I have the following recurrence:
$$F(0) = 0$$ $$F(1) = 1$$ $$nF(n) = n + 2 \sum_{i=1}^{n-2} F(i)$$
I'm new to generating functions, and I'm not sure how I would apply them here to try and get a closed form. I've written some programs that seem to imply empirically that:
$$\lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{F(n)}n = \frac{1 - {e}^{-2}}2$$
Is there some way to get the closed form for $F(n)$, or if not, just to prove the above limit?
After playing with the sequence for a bit, I realized that it was natural to write $F(n)$ as a fraction with denominator $n!$. The resulting numerators of $F(n)$ for $n=0,\ldots,5$ are $0,1,2,10,48,296$. OEIS returns exactly one candidate for this sequence, OEIS A037256. It is not immediately evident from the OEIS entry that this actually is the the sequence $\langle n!F(n):n\in\Bbb N\rangle$, but one of the references is to A seating arrangement problem [PDF] by Philippe Flajolet, which deals with the following problem (in a different formulation).
Say the first light turned on is number $k$. Then lights $k-1$ and $k+1$ are no longer available to be turned on, and we can now work separately in the block of lights numbered $1$ through $k-2$ and the block numbered $k+2$ through $n$. The expected number of lights turned on will then be $1+E(k-2)+E(n-k-1)$, and since each of the $n$ choices of $k$ is equally likely, we must have
$$\begin{align*} E(n)&=\frac1n\sum_{k=1}^n\big(1+E(k-2)+E(n-k-1)\big)\\ &=1+\frac1n\left(\sum_{k=1}^nE(k-2)+\sum_{k=1}^nE(n-1-k)\right)\\ &=1+\frac1n\left(\sum_{k=1}^{n-2}E(k)+\sum_{k=1}^{n-2}E(k)\right)\\ &=1+\frac2n\sum_{k=1}^{n-2}E(k)\;. \end{align*}$$
Multiplying through by $n$, we find that
$$nE(n)=n+2\sum_{k=1}^{n-2}E(k)\;,$$
and clearly $E(0)=0$ and $E(1)=1$, so in fact $E(n)=F(n)$.
We can now use the information in the OEIS entry:
$$F(n)=\sum_{k=0}^{n-1}\frac{(n-k)(-2)^k}{(k+1)!}\;,$$
and if $a_n=n!F(n)$, the numbers $a_n$ satisfy the recurrence
$$a_n=2(n-1)a_{n-1}-(n-4)(n-1)a_{n-2}-2(n-2)(n-1)a_{n-3}$$
and have the exponential generating function
$$g(x)=\frac{1-e^{-2x}}{2(1-x)^2}=\sum_{n\ge 0}a_n\frac{x^n}{n!}=\sum_{n\ge 0}F(n)x^n\;,$$
which is therefore the ordinary generating function for your sequence.
Finally, $a_n\sim\frac12nn!(1-e^{-2})$, so
$$F(n)\sim\frac{n(1-e^{-2})}2\;,$$
as you conjectured.