Consider the separable IVP $$\frac{dx}{dt}=f(x)g(t)\;\;\;\text{ with }x(0)=x_0$$ Suppose that functions $f,g,$ and $f'$ are all continuous. We can find the particular solution using the formula $$\int^{x(t)}_{x_0}\frac{1}{f(x)}dx=\int^t_0g(t)dt \tag{*}$$ However, this formula is not quite correct. The issue is we divide by $f(x)$, but it is possible that $f(x)=0$ for some $x$. In particular, suppose that $f(x^*)=0$ where $x^*$ is some real number, and suppose that $f(x)\neq0$ for any $x\neq x^*$.
- The starred formula is not valid if $x_0=x^*$. In this case, show that the constant function $x(t)=x^*$ is a solution to the IVP.
- The starred formula is also invalid if $x(t)=x^*$ for any $t$. Assume that $x_0\neq x^*$. Explain why the solution $x(t)\neq x^*$ for any time $t$. (Hint: this relies on the existence and uniqueness theorems).
- Suppose that $f$ is continuous but $f'$ is not. Show that the constant function $x(t)=x^*$ is still a solution to the IVP when $x_0=x^*$. Is the formula guaranteed to produce the correct answer when $x_0\neq x^*$?
My Attempt
- We will verify this by differentiating $x(t)=x^*$ $$\frac{d}{dt}(x)=\frac{d}{dt}(x^*)=0.$$ We are given that $f(x^*)=0$ so we know that the ODE is $$\frac{dx}{dt}=f(x^*)g(t)=0\cdot g(t)=0.$$ Thus, the constant function is a a solution to the IVP.
But isn't this true for all $t$? not just for the initial condition? How do I use the initial condition in this case?
We know that $f(x^*)=0$ just like in the first part. I am confused about why $x(t)$ is not a constant function.
For this part, why does $f'$ not being continuous matter? We do not need to $f^1$ to evaluate the ODE.