Here I suggest a 'simple' and exquisite integral to solve, namely to prove $$ \int_{0}^{\infty} \cos(x\sqrt{x^2+2}) \,\mathrm{d}x = \frac1{e}\sqrt{\frac{\pi}{8}} $$ which is regarded as a kind of generalization of Fresnel-type integral, say $$ \int_{0}^{\infty} \cos(x^2) \,\mathrm{d}x = \sqrt{\frac{\pi}{8}} $$ An usual method to crack this integral is using Laplace Transform, let $y=x\sqrt{x^2+2}\, (y>0)$, we have $$ \int_{0}^{\infty} \cos(x\sqrt{x^2+2}) \,\mathrm{d}x = \frac1{2}\int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{\sqrt{\sqrt{y^2+1}+1}}{\sqrt{y^2+1}} \cos(y) \,\mathrm{d}y $$ where you may obviously have $\mathcal{L}(\cos(y))=\frac{s}{s^2+1}$, yet the inverse transform part $$ \quad\mathcal{L}^{-1}\left(\frac{\sqrt{\sqrt{y^2+1}+1}}{\sqrt{y^2+1}}\right) $$ is not trivial. Of course, this integral is not a technically 'hard-to-solve' one, but the challenge is to solve it with elementary methods. I do not have any helpful insight yet.
May I ask:
1.Any elementary way to obtain that inverse transform? (I think it is a special case of Bessel function.)
2.Any elementary way to solve the integral without using Laplace Transform? (Of course, you can solve the problem with any elementary tools from complex analysis.)
Thanks for any help.
The following is an answer to your second question.
Using the approach Po1ynomial used here, we have $$ \begin{align} I = \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{\sqrt{\sqrt{y^2+1}+1}}{\sqrt{y^2+1}} \, \cos(y) \,\mathrm{d}y &= \sqrt{2} \, \Re\int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{\cos (y)}{\sqrt{1+iy}} \, \mathrm dy \\ &= \frac{\sqrt{2}}{2} \, \Re \, \left(\int_{0}^{\infty}\frac{e^{iy}}{\sqrt{1+iy}} \, \mathrm dy + \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{e^{-iy}}{\sqrt{1+iy}} \, \mathrm dy\right) , \end{align} $$ where the square root is the principal branch of the square root.
Integrating the integrand of the first integral around a quarter-circle contour in the first quadrant, while integrating the integrand of second integral around a quarter circle contour in the fourth quadrant, we get
$$ \begin{align} I &= \frac{\sqrt{2}}{2} \, \Re \, \left(\int_{0}^{1} \frac{e^{-t}}{\sqrt{1-t}} \, \mathrm \, i \, dt + \int_{1}^{\infty} \frac{e^{-t}}{i \sqrt{t-1}} \, i \, \mathrm dt+ \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{e^{-t}}{\sqrt{1+t}} \, (-i) \, \mathrm dt \right) \\ &= \frac{\sqrt{2}}{2} \, \Re \, \left(i\int_{0}^{1} \frac{e^{-t}}{\sqrt{1-t}} \, \mathrm dt + \frac{1}{e}\int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{e^{-u}}{\sqrt{u}} \, \mathrm du - i \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{e^{-t}}{\sqrt{1+t}} \, \mathrm dt \right) \\ &= \frac{\sqrt{2}}{2} \, \Re \, \left(\color{red}{i}\int_{0}^{1} \frac{e^{-t}}{\sqrt{1-t}} \, \mathrm dt + \frac{2}{e} \int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-w^{2}} \, \mathrm dw -\color{red}{i} \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{e^{-t}}{\sqrt{1+t}} \, \mathrm dt \right) \\ &= \frac{\sqrt{2}}{e} \int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-w^{2}} \, \mathrm dw \\ &= \frac{\sqrt{2 \pi }}{2e}. \end{align}$$
Therefore, using your substitution, we have $$\int_{0}^{\infty} \cos(x\sqrt{x^2+2}) \,\mathrm{d}x = \frac{I}{2} = \frac{\sqrt{2 \pi}}{4e} = \frac{1}{e} \sqrt{\frac{\pi}{8}}.$$