Is there an analytical solution to the equation below?
$$\begin{align*} A\frac{\alpha}{k}e^{(k-\alpha)t}+B\frac{\beta}{k}e^{(k-\beta)t}=1 \end{align*}$$
where $\alpha$ and $\beta $ are roots of $$\begin{align*} z^2 - (a+b+c)z + ac=0 \end{align*}$$
I tried, but in vain, to use AM-GM inequality and obtain $something+something \ge 1$. By then the two things have to be equal if those two things look like the original expressions. But not very successful.
I have been told that this somewhat looks like $u^t+v^t=w^t$. Fermat is not happy with this equation.
Any thoughts are appreciated.
Edit: $A$, $B$, $\alpha$, $\beta$, $k$, $a$, $b$, $c$ are all positive real numbers.
As already said in comments and answers, finding the zero of the function$$f(t)=A\,\alpha\, e^{-\alpha t}+B\,\beta \,e^{-\beta t}-k\, e^{-kt}$$ (as Justpassingby wrote it) will require, for the most general case, numerical methods (such as Newton).
Assuming that $A$, $B$, $\alpha$, $\beta$, $k$ are all positive real numbers, it will probably be a good idea to search for the zero of $$g(x)=\log\Big(A\,\alpha\, e^{-\alpha t}+B\,\beta \,e^{-\beta t}\Big)-\log\Big(k\, e^{-kt} \Big)$$ which should look almost as a straight line.
Starting iterations at $t_0=0$ would provide as a first iterate $$t_1=(\alpha A+\beta B)\frac{ \log (k)-\log (\alpha A+\beta B)}{\alpha A (k-\alpha )+\beta B (k-\beta )}$$