$$\Gamma(z)\Gamma(1-z)=\int_0^{\infty}x^{z-1}e^{-x}dx\int_0^{\infty}x^{-z}e^{-x}dx=\int_0^{\infty}(2x)^{-1}e^{-2x}(2dx)=\Gamma(0)\to\infty??$$
2026-04-04 04:33:24.1775277204
Some problem with Euler's Reflection Formula?
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1
I don't think your operation is valid. Compare:
$$ \int_a^b x \; dx \int_a^b 1/x \; dx = \frac12(b^2-a^2)(\ln b - \ln a) \neq \int_a^b 1 dx =b-a $$