This is a very popular problem (I believe, its Question 666 by Ramanujan):
Solve in positive rational numbers $x^y=y^x$.
There are quite a few sites and videos about solving this equation, but at any time I find something taken for granted, that doesn't look obvious to me.
Typically the solution looks like the following:
Let $x$, $y$ be the rational numbers, satisfying the equation and $y>x$ (case $y=x$ is trivial and disregarded). Then $q=\frac{y}{x}$ is also a rational number and $q>1$.
Substituting $y=qx$ into the equation, gives: $x^{qx}=(qx)^x$. Then we raise both sides into power $\frac{1}{x}$, solve for $x$ and get $y$ as $qx$. The result is: $$ x=q^\frac{1}{q-1}, \qquad y=q^\frac{q}{q-1} $$ No questions so far.
Now, assume $k=\frac{1}{q-1}$. Since $q>1$, $k$ is positive. Also $q=\frac{k+1}{k}$. Now, the solution can be rewritten in terms of $k$:
$$ x=\left(\frac{k+1}{k}\right)^k, \qquad y=\left(\frac{k+1}{k}\right)^{k+1}, $$
where $k$ is an integer (???).
From where it follows, that $k$ must be an integer? Mere examples $4^\frac{1}{2}=2$, or $\left(\frac{1}{4}\right)^\frac{1}{2}=\frac{1}{2}$ show, that $a^r$ may be rational, even if $r$ is fractional. I guess there is something to do specifically with $\left(\frac{k+1}{k}\right)^k$, however, despite my best effort, I couldn't find a way to prove that.

For the sake of contradiction, suppose $k>0$ is not an integer. Then $k=\frac st$, where $s$ and $t$ are positive integers, $\gcd(s, t)=1$ and $t>1$.
Let $x=\frac pq$, where $p$ and $q$ are positive integers, $\gcd(p,q)=1$.
We have $$ \frac pq=x=\left(\frac{k+1}{k}\right)^k=\left(\frac{s+t}s\right)^{\frac st} $$
$$ \frac {p^t}{q^t}=\frac{(s+t)^s}{s^s} $$
Note that $\gcd(s+t,s)=\gcd(t,s)=1$.
Since the fractions on both sides are reduced fractions, we have $p^t=(s+t)^s$ and $q^t=s^s$.
Since $\gcd(s,t)=1$ and $(s+t)^s$ is a $t$-th power of an integer, $s+t$ must be a $t$-th power of an integer as well.
Since $\gcd(s,t)=1$ and $s^s$ is a $t$-th power of an integer, $s$ must be a $t$-th power of an integer as well.
However, $t=(s+t)-s$. That cannot be true since the difference between any two positive $t$-th powers of integers is greater than $t$ when integer $t>1$.
We have reached a contradiction.