I'm trying to calculate the following limit:
$$ \lim_{x\to +\infty}\frac{f(x)}{g(x)} $$ where $$ f(x) = e^{-2x}(\cos(x)+2\sin(x))$$ and $$g(x) = e^{-x}(\cos(x)+\sin(x))$$
Now, because $g'$ has zero points, we can't use the de l'Hopital rule, but when I draw the graph, it does seem that de l'Hopital would produce a valid answer ($0$).
How would I go about calculating this limit? (My intuition says it doesn't exist.)
L'Hôpital's rule is not normally used when finding a limit as an expression tends to $\infty$.
In your case, $$ g(x)=e^{-x}(\cos(x)+\sin(x))=\sqrt{2}e^{-x}\sin\left(x+\frac\pi4\right) $$ so $g$ has zeroes at $-\frac\pi4,\frac{3\pi}4,\frac{5\pi}4,\dots$. Therefore, the expression $$ \frac{f(x)}{g(x)} $$ is not defined at these points. Indeed, since $f$ does not have a zero at $-\frac\pi4,\frac{3\pi}4,\frac{5\pi}4,\dots$, there is no way we could make $f/g$ into a continuous function even if we wanted to. So there is no limit as $x\to+\infty$.