Let $(X,\mu)$ and $E_n\subset X$ s.t $\mu(E_n)=\mu(X)$
can we write $$\mu(X)=\mu(\cap_{n=1}^{\infty}E_n\uplus (\cap_{n=1}^{\infty}E_n)^C)$$?
Shouldn't it be:
$$\mu(X)=\mu(\cup_{n=1}^{\infty}E_n\uplus (\cap_{n=1}^{\infty}E_n)^C)$$?
Let $(X,\mu)$ and $E_n\subset X$ s.t $\mu(E_n)=\mu(X)$
can we write $$\mu(X)=\mu(\cap_{n=1}^{\infty}E_n\uplus (\cap_{n=1}^{\infty}E_n)^C)$$?
Shouldn't it be:
$$\mu(X)=\mu(\cup_{n=1}^{\infty}E_n\uplus (\cap_{n=1}^{\infty}E_n)^C)$$?
$X$ is the disjoint union of $\cap E_n$ and $(\cap E_n)^{c}$ so the first one is correct (without any assumptions on the sets $E_n$).