I need clarification on the proof of the following claim:
if $x^{2}\equiv1\pmod {p^\alpha}$ then $ x\equiv\pm1$ where $p$ is an odd prime and $\alpha\geq 1$.
Proof: $x^2\equiv1\pmod{p^\alpha} \rightarrow p^\alpha\mid x^2-1=(x-1)(x+1)$
but not both $(x-1)$ and $(x+1)$ can be divisible by $p^\alpha$
So either:
$$p^\alpha \mid x-1\rightarrow x\equiv1\pmod{p^\alpha}$$
or
$$p^\alpha\mid x+1\rightarrow x\equiv-1 \pmod{p^\alpha}$$
I am sure it is obvious, but I am not understanding why $(x-1)$ and $(x+1)$ cannot both be divisible $p^\alpha$. Is it because they differ by $2$ and power of odd primes cannot do that?
If $x-1$ and $x+1$ were both divisible by $p^\alpha$, then their difference $(x+1)-(x-1)=2$ would also be divisible by $p^\alpha$. This implies $p^\alpha$ is either $1$ or $2$, which is impossible if $p>2$ and $\alpha\geq 1$.
Or, very intuitively, if $x-1$ were a multiple of $p^\alpha$, then the next multiple of $p^\alpha$ would be $x-1+p^\alpha$ which is larger than $x+1$ since $p^\alpha>2$. So $x+1$ cannot be a multiple of $p^\alpha$.