My notes give a lemma but I,m snuggling how the lemma actually works. Any help would be appreciated
2026-02-23 09:42:20.1771839740
Step Function Proofs
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From $0 \le f(x) \le \frac{\lambda}{b-a}$ it follows that
$$0 = \int_a^b 0 dx \le \int_a^b f(x) dx \le \int_a^b\frac{\lambda}{b-a}= \lambda .$$