Suppose that I know for a real number $x$, the following inequality holds $$ -1\leq x\leq 1\tag{1} $$ Why for $n\in\mathbb{N}$, we have $$ -\frac{1}{n}\leq\frac{x}{n+2}\leq\frac{1}{n}\tag{2} $$ ?
If I divide each sides of Inequality (1) by $n+2$, then I get $$ -\frac{1}{n+2}\leq\frac{x}{n+2}\leq\frac{1}{n+2}\tag{3} $$ I also know that since $n+2>n$, then $$ \frac{1}{n+2}<\frac{1}{n} $$ So I can rewrite Inequality (3) as
$$ -\frac{1}{n}<-\frac{1}{n+2}\leq\frac{x}{n+2}\leq\frac{1}{n+2}<\frac{1}{n}\tag{4} $$ So now Inequality (4) can be written as
$$ -\frac{1}{n}<\frac{x}{n+2}<\frac{1}{n} $$ which is different from Inequality (2)!
$$ -\frac{1}{n}<-\frac{1}{n+2}\leq\frac{x}{n+2}\leq\frac{1}{n+2}<\frac{1}{n}\tag{4} $$
implies
$$ -\frac{1}{n}\leq\frac{x}{n+2}\leq\frac{1}{n} $$
as well.
Though your proof illustrates that equality can't be attained.
It's like there is nothing wrong with writing $2 \le 10$ though we know that $2 < 10$.