let $ A_n: L^2([-\pi,\pi]) \rightarrow L^2([-\pi,\pi])$ be $ A_nf(t)=f(t-\frac{1}{n}) $.
Does $(A_n)$ converge in the strong operator topology?
let $ A_n: L^2([-\pi,\pi]) \rightarrow L^2([-\pi,\pi])$ be $ A_nf(t)=f(t-\frac{1}{n}) $.
Does $(A_n)$ converge in the strong operator topology?
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It does converge in the strong operator topology. You can approximate $f$ in $L^2$ by a $2\pi$-periodic, continuous function $g$, and the strong convergence is clear for such a $g$.