Question:
"Let $X_{1},X_{2},\cdots$ be a sequence of independent random variables such that $X_{n}$ is binomial with parameters $2n-1$ and $p=\frac{1}{2}$. If
$$Y_{n} = \frac{2(X_{1}+X_{2}+\cdots +X_{n})}{n}-n$$
show that the sequence $Y_{n}$ converges in distribution to a standard Normal distribution.
My attempt
I believe I'm supposed to use the Strong Law of Large numbers to prove the following:
$$\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty}\frac{2(X_{1}+X_{2}+\cdots +X_{n})}{n}-n=0$$
I've figured that $E[X_{i}]=n-\frac{1}{2}$, but when I try to apply it, I get something like this:
$$2E[X_{i}]=2(n-\frac{1}{2})=2n-1\\ \Rightarrow \lim_{n\rightarrow \infty}(n-1)=\infty$$
Edit: $E[X_{i}]=2i-\frac{1}{2}$ for every $1\leq i \leq n$, which makes the above expectation moot, but I also don't know how to simplify $Y_{n}$ using this expectation. It might be I can't use Law of Strong Number since it means each expectation increases as $n$ increases.
I'm also not sure of how to prove that the variance equals 1.
Forget about the strong law of large numbers. To solve this problem, you need to put the following ideas together.
The sum of independent
Binomial$(n_i,p)$ random variables is aBinomial$\left(\sum_i n_i,p\right)$ random variableThe mean of a sum of random variables is the sum of the means
The variance of a sum of independent random variables is the sum of the variances of the random variables
If $Z$ is a
Binomial$(n,p)$ random variable and $n$ is large, then the cumulative probability distribution function (CDF) of $\displaystyle \left(\frac{Z - E[Z]}{\sqrt{\operatorname{var}(Z)}}\right)$ is well-approximated by (in fact converges to) $\Phi(\cdot)$, the CDF of the standard normal random variable. This is sometimes referred to as the DeMoivre-LaPlace approximation theorem and is a special case of the Central Limit Theorem that leonbloy suggested to you in a comment.I assume that you do know, or know how to compute, the mean and variance of a binomial random variable.