$N$ is a subgroup of $G$, $f \in \operatorname{Aut}(G)$ and $f(N)=N$. Define $h(gN)=f(g)N$, $g \in G$. Is $h\in \operatorname{Aut}(G/N)$ ?
The problem is when I'm trying to prove formally that $h$ is an injection, I come to the part when I need to show that $f(g_1)N=f(g_2)N$ implies $g_1N=g_2N$. Can I conclude that, because $f$ is an injection, it follows immediately .. ?
Suppose $gN \in \ker h$. Then, $f(g) \in N$. Since $f(N)=N$, $f$ is an automorphism when restricted to $N$. It follows that $g \in N$ and so your map is injective.