This is the question with its answer:
It is not clear for me why we should show the first statement in the following picture:
Could anyone explain this for me please?
2026-02-25 10:20:58.1772014858
Subject math GRE exam 0568 Q.46
184 Views Asked by user426277 https://math.techqa.club/user/user426277/detail At
1
Since $i$ generates the group then $z=i^m$ for some $m$. Now, if $i$ maps to $i^k$ then $z$ maps to $i^{mk}=z^k$ following the homomorphism properties.