We have a structure: $\mathbb Q=\langle \mathbb Q,\,+,\,-,\,*,\,0,\,1 \rangle$
Question: Does $\mathbb Q$ contain a substructure which is not a field?
I have in my notes that there is such a substructure and it is $\mathbb Z$ because $\mathbb Z \subseteq \mathbb Q$
But I don't think that I fully understand it.
We wrote the axioms of field and that
$x \neq 0 \rightarrow (\exists y)(x*y=y*x=1)$ does not satisfy rest of the theory.
but I don't know exactly why.
I don't know what "structure" is supposed to mean. But I can easily explain to you why $\mathbb Z$ is not a field.
It is, as you state, because the multiplicative inverse axiom fails. For $\mathbb Z$ to be a field, it must be true that for all $x \ne 0$ in $\mathbb Z$, then exists a $y \in \mathbb Z$ so that $x*y = y*x = 1$. Such a number we would call $y = \frac 1x$. It is called the "multiplicative inverse of $x$" because $x*\frac 1x = \frac 1x *x = 1$.
That simply is not true for $\mathbb Z$. Take any $x \ne \pm 1$. Say for instance $x = 2$. Then there does not exist any integer $y$ so that $x*y = y*x = 1$. (For example: if $2*y = y*2 =1$ then $y = \frac 12$ and $y = \frac 12 \not \in \mathbb Z$).
$\mathbb Z$ is not a field, because it is not true that ever element other than $0$ has a multiplicative inverse. In fact, other than $1$ and $-1$, no integer has a multiplicative inverse.