I'm studying real analysis and I know about derivative, Riemann integral, sequence and series, basic concepts. I'm having trouble understanding the sufficient conditions for a Fourier series of a function converges to that function. Is the following statements true or false?
If the function $f$ is continuous and $2\pi$-periodic then the partial sum of the fourier series of $f$ converges pointwise to $f$ for every $x$.
If the function $f$ is continuous and $2\pi$-periodic with the derivative being absolutely (Riemann) integrable on $[0,2\pi]$ then the partial sum of the Fourier series of $f$ converges uniformly to $f$ on $[0,2\pi]$
If the function $f$ is continuous and $2\pi$-periodic then $f$ and the fourier series satisfy the Parseval's identity:
$$\int_0^{2\pi}|f(x)|^2dx=\pi a_0^2+\sum_{i=1}^\infty\pi(a_i^2+b_i^2)$$
False. There exists example for continuous function but Fourier series diverges at some point.
Yes. It means $|f^{'}|$ is bounded, hence $f$ is Lipschitz on the circle ,we get uniform convergence.
Yes. Mean convergence ($L^2$ convergence) only requires integrability.