Suppose $R$ is a unitary ring and $S$ has no zero divisor. Prove that if $f$ is a homomorphic function from $R$ to $S$ then $S$ is unitary.
My attempt: I think if S is going to be unitary, then it's unit element should be the image of the unit element of R. but no idea for starting...
If $f$ is the zero homomorphism, this is false. Let's suppose otherwise from here on out. It turns out that you don't even need to know $S$ has an identity up front:
This is a good idea. Here is a hint to make it work: verify $f(1)$ is an idempotent of $S$. That reduces the problem to this question.