Suppose that $E \subset \mathbb{R}$. If $E \cap F$ is Lebesgue measurable for all measurable $F$ such that $m(F)$ is finite, then $E$ is measurable.
I have spent hours trying to prove this statement. Any hints? Note: $m(F)$ is the Lebesgue measure.
Suppose that $E \subset \mathbb{R}$. If $E \cap F$ is Lebesgue measurable for all measurable $F$ such that $m(F)$ is finite, then $E$ is measurable.
I have spent hours trying to prove this statement. Any hints? Note: $m(F)$ is the Lebesgue measure.
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