Suppose $V$ is finite-dimensional with dim $V \gt 0$, and $W$ is infinite dimensional. Prove that $\mathcal{L}(V,W)$ is infinite dimensional. (The question is from Linear Algebra Done Right)
My trial (I tried to prove by contradiction. But I am not sure whether this is correct):
Suppose $V$ is finite-dimensional with dim $V \gt 0$, and $W$ is infinite dimensional. Suppose $\mathcal{L}(V,W)$ is finite dimensional. Let $T_1, T_2, ..., T_n$ be the basis of $\mathcal{L}(V,W)$. Then $Tv = span(T_1,...,T_n)$.
Define $T_j(v_j) = w_j $ for $j = 1,...,n$. Then $Tv = W = span(w_1,...,w_n)$. That contradicts with the assumption that $W$ is infinite dimensional.
I am not sure whether this is correct. I am not sure whether $Tv = W$ is correct. Should it be range $T$ but not $W$?
Apart from the choice of words (a basis of $\mathcal{L}(V,W)$, not the basis), the proof is not good.
The idea is good, though. Suppose $\mathcal{L}(V,W)$ is finite dimensional. We want to show that also $W$ is. To this end, choose a basis $\{T_1,\dots,T_n\}$ of $\mathcal{L}(V,W)$. Set $$ W_0=\operatorname{span}\{T_i(v_j)\mid 1\le i\le n, 1\le j\le m\}, $$ where $\{v_1,\dots,v_m\}$ is a basis of $V$. We want to show that $W_0=W$. If not, take $w\in W$, $w\notin W_0$. Then we can define a linear map $T\colon V\to W$ by $$ T(v_j)=w $$ Since $\{T_1,\dots,T_n\}$ is supposed to be a basis of $\mathcal{L}(V,W)$, we have $$ T=a_1T_1+a_2T_2+\dots+a_nT_n $$ which easily leads to a contradiction.