I want to show that $$\overbrace{\sup\{f(x)-f(y):x,y\in X\}}^{(1)}=\overbrace{\sup\{|f(x)-f(y)|:x,y\in X\}}^{(2)}$$ where $f:X\to\mathbb{R}$ is a bounded function.
It seems obvious, but I don't quite know how to prove it.
Here is what I have so far:
I need to show that $(1)\leq (2)$ and $(1)\geq (2)$, which implies that $(1)=(2)$.
$(1)\leq (2):$
Let's take some $x_0, y_0\in X$, then
$$ f(x_0)-f(y_0)\leq |f(x_0)-f(y_0)|\leq \sup\{|f(x)-f(y)|:x,y\in X\}$$
$$ f(x_0)-f(y_0)\leq \sup\{|f(x)-f(y)|:x,y\in X\}$$
Now I would think that
$$\sup\{f(x)-f(y):x,y\in X\}\leq \sup\{|f(x)-f(y)|:x,y\in X\}$$
Is that correct?
$(2)\leq (1):$
I don't have ideas here.
How to prove it? Any ideas or tips?
Note that for every $x,y \in X$, we have (1) $\geq f(x)-f(y)$. Therefore, given $a,b\in X$, (1) $\geq f(a)-f(b)$ and (1) $\geq f(b)-f(a) =-(f(a)-f(b))$. This implies (1) $\geq |f(a)-f(b)|$. Now, we conclude (1) is an upper bound of $\{|f(x)-f(y)|:x,y\in X\}$.
Since (2) is the supremum, we have the inequality desired.