Let $(a_{nm})_{n,m=1}^\infty \in \mathbb{R}$. Show that
\begin{equation} \sup_{n}\sup_{m}a_{nm} = \sup_{m}\sup_{n}a_{nm} \end{equation}
This is a practice question for a test that I'm not really sure where to start. It seems fairly obvious, but I don't know what to do to make it rigorous.
You have $a_{mn} \le \sup_{n'} a_{mn'}$ for all $m,n$, hence $a_{mn} \le \sup_{m'}\sup_{n'} a_{m'n'}$ for all $m,n$. Then $\sup_m a_{mn} \le \sup_{m'}\sup_{n'} a_{m'n'}$ for all $n$ and so $\sup_n \sup_m a_{mn} \le \sup_{m'}\sup_{n'} a_{m'n'}$.
Now repeat the argument with the order switched.