Let $A \subseteq B$, where $A$ and $B$ are non-empty sets and $B$ is bounded above.
Show that $\sup(A)$ exists and $\sup(A)\le \sup(B)$ (Problem given as written)
For clarity, $\sup(x)$ is the supremum of x
I'm just asking if I did this correctly, I feel like I'm missing something here
Proof sup(A) exists: Let $Y = \max(B)$. Then, $Y \ge a, \forall a\in A$. Therefore, A is bounded above because $\exists b\in B$ such that $b \ge a,\forall a\in A$. By completeness axiom, if A is bounded above, then $\exists \sup(a)$
Proof $\sup(A)\le\sup(B)$: Since $\sup(B)$ is an upper bound of $B$ and $A\subseteq B$, $\sup(B)$ is an upper bound of $A$ such that $\sup(A) = \sup(B)$ or $\sup(A) < \sup(B)\implies \sup(A)\le \sup(B)$.
Your first does not looks reasonable to me: for example $\max(B)$ may not exist. Instead try saying that
Your second looks more reasonable to me. You could say that $\forall b \in B$ you have $b \le \sup(B)$ and so since $A \subseteq B$, $\forall a \in A$ you have $a \le \sup(B)$ and thus $\sup(A) \le \sup(B)$, but this is what I understood from what you said.