I have read this statement in several places: "Two surfaces are homeomorphic iff are diffeomorphic". I think the nontrivial implication follows in this manner: First, we triangulate the surface and then we smooth the resulting piecewise linear manifold, but I haven't found and well-written proof. Could you possibly give me a reference for the proof? Thanks in advance.
2026-04-07 17:46:56.1775584016
Surfaces are homeomorphic iff are diffeomorphic.
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