I understand that a function $f$ from a set $X$ to a set $Y$ is surjective, if, for every element $y$ in the codomain $Y$ of $f$, there is at least one element $x$ in the domain $X$ of $f$ such that $f(x) = y$.
Is $x^2- \lfloor x \rfloor^2$ surjective for all real numbers greater than or equal to $0$? I know that it is from graphing it, however, I'm not sure how to formally prove it.
Here's the graph:
Clearly the answer is "yes."