In my Gre book, the Sylow's First Theorem is stated as
Let $G$ be a finite group of order $n$, and let $n= p^k m$, where $p$ is a prime that does not divide $m$. Then $G$ has at least one subgroup of order $p^i$ for every integer $i$ from $0$ to $k$.
Is this correct? Or is this a corollary? I remember Sylow's theorem only guarantees the existence of a $p$-Sylow subgroup, not for each $p^i$ with $i=0,...k$.
Thanks a lot!
Edit: From Wiki Page
"Theorem 1: For any prime factor $p$ with multiplicity $n$ of the order of a finite group $G$, there exists a Sylow $p$-subgroup of $G$, of order $p^n$."
This Theorem 1 only says the existence of a Sylow $p$-subgroup, not a $p$-subgroup.
I checked with Dummit & Foote book. The first theorem there also only says the existence of a Sylow $p$-subgroup, not a $p$-subgroup.
$p$-subgroup is order $p^\alpha$ such that $p^\alpha$ divides $|G|$.
Sylow $p$-subgroup is order $p^\alpha$ such that $|G| = p^\alpha m$ where $p$ does not divide $m$.
For example $|G| = 24 = 2^3 3$, then a subgroup of order $4$ is a $p$-subgroup but not a Sylow $p$-subgroup. Since $24 = 2^2 6$ which means $m=6$.
So can I really say that there exists a subgroup of order $4$ using Sylow's theorem?
This is usually known as Sylow's First Theorem. Check out the summary at http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sylow_theorems