I have solved the following problem and I was able to solve it, but could not fully understand why the hint listed in the description is true.
If $y$ has the standard multivariate normal distribution, $y \sim N(o,I_n)$, then $y^TAy$ has a $\chi^2(p)$ distribution if and only if $A = A^2$ and rank$(A) = p$. Hint: It is without loss of generality to assume $A$ symmetric
Why is it without loss of generality to assume $A$ is symmetric? Or, is it true that $A$ 'operates' symmetrically in quadratic forms?
The reason that you can assume that $A$ is symmetric is that only the symmetric part of $A$ contributes to $y^TAy$. Observe that if $M^T=-M$, then since $y^TMy$ is a scalar, we have $$y^TMy = (y^TMy)^T = y^TM^Ty = -y^TMy,$$ therefore $y^TMy=0$. Now let $S=\frac12(A+A^T)$ and $M=\frac12(A-A^T)$. The former is symmetric and the latter skew-symmetric, and $A=S+M$. However, $y^TMy=0$, therefore $y^TAy=y^TSy$.