Suppose $V$ is any vector space and $U$ is another space over same field $\mathbb F$.$T:V \to U$ is an onto linear transformation.Show that $V/Ker(T)$ is isomorphic to $U$.I have proved this theorem by defining a function $\phi :V/KerT \to U$ by, $\phi(v+KerT)=Tv$ where $v \in V$,the function is well defined and bijective.The most important thing is it is a linear map.So $\phi$ satisfies my purpose.Now I want to get an intutition about what is going on.I want some kind of stuff to help me visualize this thing.I have tried to understand with linear maps from $\mathbb R^3$ to $\mathbb R^2$ which are surjective.I think that the cosets(which are plane or line) are getting reduced to a point.I am not sure enough.I think I need some help on this thing.Does this theorem have anything to do with Universal mapping property characterizes quotient space up to unique isomorphism
2026-03-25 13:13:28.1774444408
$T$ is onto linear transformation from $V$ to $U$,then $V/N(T)$ is isomorphic with $U$.
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Let’s simplify the situation for a moment. Forget that $V$ and $U$ are vector spaces and that $T$ is a linear transformation; just think of $V$ and $U$ as sets and of $T$ as a map from $V$ onto $U$. For each $u\in U$ let $V_u=\{v\in V:T(v)=u\}$, the set of points in $V$ that are mapped to $u$ by $T$. Let $\mathscr{P}=\{V_u:u\in U\}$. If $u_0,u_1\in U$ and $u_0\ne u_1$, then $V_{u_0}\cap V_{u_1}=\varnothing$: $T$ cannot send any $v\in V$ both to $u_0$ and to $u_1$. Thus, the map $\varphi:U\to\mathscr{P}:u\mapsto V_u$ is a bijection, and so, of course, is its inverse sending $V_u\in\mathscr{P}$ to $u$.
Now put the linear algebra back into the picture. First, $\ker T=\{v\in V:T(v)=0_U\}$, so in the notation of my first paragraph, $\ker T=V_{0_U}$: it’s one of the members of $\mathscr{P}$. Fix $v_0\in V$ and let $u_0=T(v_0)$; what vectors in $V$ belong to $V_{u_0}$? Suppose that $v\in V_{u_0}$; then $T(v)=u_0=T(v_0)$. Since $T$ is linear, $T(v-v_0)=T(v)-T(v_0)=0_U$, so $v-v_0\in\ker T$, and $v\in v_0+\ker T$, where $v_0+\ker T=\{v_0+v:v\in\ker T\}$. Conversely, you can easily check that if $v\in v_0+\ker T$, then $T(v)=u_0$, and therefore $v\in V_{u_0}$. Thus, $V_{u_0}=v_0+\ker T$. In other words, the members of $\mathscr{P}$ are precisely the sets of the form $v_0+\ker T$ for $v_0\in V$.
By definition the members of $V/\ker T$ are the sets $v_0+\ker T$ for $v_0\in V$, and we’ve just seen that these are the members of $\mathscr{P}$, so in fact $V/\ker T=\mathscr{P}$. Thus, we can just as well think of the map $\varphi$ defined above as a bijection from $U$ onto $V/\ker T$. Its inverse, which I’ll call $h$, is a bijection from $V/\ker T$ onto $U$. What does $h$ look like? Let $v_0+\ker T\in V/\ker T$, and let $u_0=T(v_0)$. We’ve just seen that $v_0+\ker T=V_{u_0}$, and we know from the first paragraph that $h(V_{u_0})=u_0$. In other words, $h(v_0+\ker T)=u_0=T(v_0)$.
We’ve now shown that the map $h:V/\ker T\to U:v+\ker T\mapsto T(v)$ is a bijection; in terms of the sets involved, it’s just the inverse of the bijection $\varphi$ of the first paragraph. To complete the proof that $V/\ker T$ and $U$ are isomorphic, we just check that $h$ is linear, which is a straightforward computation.
I again say that it is not my own thinking,I found it in another stack exchange question.