I am stuck with this exercise. Can anyone give me some hints on how to proceed?
Let $A$ be an integral hyperbolic matrix with determinant $\pm 1$ and $v_1, v_2 \in \mathbb{R}^2 \setminus \{ (0, 0) \}$
Show that the equation $(A^T)^n v_1 - v_2 = 0$ has at most one solution $n \in \mathbb{Z}$.
Perhaps I'm wrong but shouldn't $v_1, v_2$ be eigenvectors here?