First, a preliminary remark:
The Whitney sum of two vector bundles is orientable. I saw this statement somewhere and was wondering if it's true. In particular, it's easy to show that $w_1(\xi\oplus\xi) = 0,$ which implies orientability for reasons outlined here. However, is it true in general? Also, this seems like a somewhat complicated first way of getting orientability.
In Milnor-Stasheff $\S$9, they ask to show that $\gamma^n\oplus\gamma^n$ is orientable, where $\gamma^n$ is the canonical $n$-plane bundle over $G_n(\mathbb{R}^{\infty})$, and the above fact is only touched upon in the obstruction theory chapter much later in the book, so using it is somewhat unsatisfactory. The main question I have is about the following: there is a claim that if $2e(M)\not=0$ for a smooth orientable manifold $M$, then $\tau(M)$ has no odd-dimensional sub-bundles. It's clear that it has no orientable odd-dimensional sub-bundles, but I'm not sure about unorientable ones. Milnor and Stasheff remark that looking at a suitable $2$-fold covering of $M$ works, so maybe taking the standard one where each point is paired with a local orientation and taking the pullback of $\tau(M)$ under the covering map would work?
This is certainly not true; for example, one of the vector bundles could be nonorientable and the other could be zero. What's true is that $w_1(V \oplus W) = w_1(V) + w_1(W)$, which shows that the sum of two copies of the same vector bundle is orientable, that the sum of two orientable bundles is orientable, etc.
First use your argument for orientable odd-dimensional subbundles, then take the orientation double cover of a nonorientable odd-dimensional subbundle.