I've been stuck on this problem for a while now. Not quite sure how to get at it. I've tried finding the derivative of the equation and using point slope form but cant get it to look like the defined tangent line. Also, a and b are both constants.
Show that $(x_0,y_0)$ is the point at which
$$\frac{x_0}{a^2}x + \frac{y_0}{b^2}y = 1$$
is tangent to the curve
$$\frac{x^2}{a^2}+\frac{y^2}{b^2} = 1$$
Well, the basic assumption must be that the given point is on the ellipse, which means
$$\frac{x_0^2}{a^2}+\frac{y_0^2}{b^2}=1\iff x_0^2b^2+y_0^2a^2=a^2b^2$$
Now the slope of tangent line at any point on the ellipse is given by the value of the derivative at the point, so differentiating implicitly the ellipse's equation:
$$\frac{2x}{a^2}dx+\frac{2y}{b^2}dy=0\implies \frac{dy}{dx}=-\frac{b^2}{a^2}\frac xy$$
which is the slope of the given line at the given point...