If we apply maclaurin series for $\ln\left(1+\dfrac1x\right)$, we get $\ln(\infty)$. Is this correct?
2026-05-15 09:18:54.1778836734
Taylor expansion of $\ln\left(1+\frac1x\right)$
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Taylor Series are $k$ degree polynomial approximations for k-times-differentiable functions.
$f(x)=\ln(1+\frac{1}{x})$ neither exists nor is differentiable at $x=0$, therefore it does not have a Maclaurin Series.
However, at $x=1$, it is infinitely differentiable, so the Taylor Series can be computed.