$$\lim_{x \to 0^+} x^{-x} =1,$$
because then we could consider the integral
$$\int_0^1 x^{-x} dx$$
as an integral of a continuous function on a compact set (which has convergent value).
Taking logs, this is the equivalent to
$$\lim_{x \to 0^+} -x \log x =0.$$
This is a standard result, which can be shown using l'Hopital's rule.
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Hint: Use the limit comparison test.
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There is another way which is based on Caparison Test again. In fact, the following limit says that the improper integral is convergent: $$\lim_{x\to 0^+}~~x^{1/2}\times\frac{1}{x^x}=0<\infty$$
It suffices to show that
$$\lim_{x \to 0^+} x^{-x} =1,$$ because then we could consider the integral
$$\int_0^1 x^{-x} dx$$
as an integral of a continuous function on a compact set (which has convergent value).
Taking logs, this is the equivalent to
$$\lim_{x \to 0^+} -x \log x =0.$$
This is a standard result, which can be shown using l'Hopital's rule.