I'm preparing for a test and I have no clue how I should solve the following question.
Let $f:\Bbb{R}\to\Bbb{R}$ be $2\pi \text{-periodic}$ function such that $f(0)=1$ and $$\forall x\in[-\pi,\pi]\setminus\{0\}, \qquad f(x)=1+\sin\left(\frac{\pi^2}{x}\right)$$ Is Fourier series of $f$ converging at $x=0$? If so, what is the sum at $x=0$?
So, I tried to evaluate the term for Fourier series coefficients: $$\hat{f(n)}=\frac{1}{2\pi}\int_{-\pi}^{\pi}f(x)e^{-inx}dx=\frac{1}{2\pi}\int_{-\pi}^{\pi}\left[1+\sin\left(\frac{\pi^2}{x}\right)\right]e^{-inx}dx$$
Now, how can I continue with this integral? what should I do with $x=0$?
Please help, thank you!
The answer is NO. Furthermore, since the function has no limit as x converges to 0 then Fourier series doesn't exist at all.
Hope it Helps