I need to test the following sequence for absolute convergence:
$$\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}(-1)^k\frac{\ln(k)}{k}$$
but I think I'm missing something. My comparison approach would be:
- Disregard $(-1)^k$ since I need to show absolute convergence (?)
- Denote that $\frac{\ln(k)}{k} > \frac{1}{k}$
- Since $\frac{1}{k}$ is the harmonic series, it diverges, thus any sequence larger must also diverge
- Thus, any series containing this sequence diverges, thus $\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\frac{\ln(k)}{k}$ diverges and does not absolutely converge (I'm unsure if I can make this implication from the steps above)
I'm really mostly unsure if steps 1-3 are enough to infer 4), or if there are any better (simple) approaches to proving this?
Thank you guys very much in advance!