hi everyone i'm having a couple of issues determing the convergence of two functions. normally i would look to prove that they converge pointwise then test for uniform convergence.
so a function converges pointwise if $\forall \epsilon > 0 \text{ and } \forall x\in A \text{ there exists } N\in \mathbb{N} \text{ so that when } n>N \text{ we have } |f_n(x)-f(x)| \leq \epsilon $
and a function converges uniformly if $\forall \epsilon > 0, \text{ there exists a } N\in \mathbb{N} \text{ such that when } n>N \text{ implies } \sup_{x \in A}|f_n(x)-f(x)| \leq \epsilon$
so im testing for uniform convergence for the function $$f_n(x) = \frac{x^n}{1+x^n}$$ for $ x \in [0,1]$
my gut instinct when looking at this is tells me this will converge to zero unfortuantly stating "this will converge to zero because i think it will" doesnt suffice. i've tried differenting $f_n$ and i find that $f'_n=0 \text{ at } x=0$ the second derivative test tells me this is a point of inflection so i'm unsure how to go about this.
once i know the limit is zero though i can show this doesnt converge uniformly on the inteval as $$\sup_{x \in [0,1]} |f_n(x)-f(x)|=\sup_{x \in [0,1]} |f_n(x)|=\sup_{x \in [0,1]} |\frac{x^n}{1+x^n}|=\frac{1}{2}$$
any and all guideance would be great. thanks
There is a common trick for these, based on the fact that the uniform limit of continuous functions is continuous. Here you have $$ \lim_{n\to \infty}f_n(x)=0 $$ if $x\in [0,1)$. But,
$$ \lim_{n\to \infty}f_n(1)=1/2 $$ can you conclude from here?