I am reading a proof that the cantor set is uncountable and I don't understand it. Hopefully someone can help me.
Let $C$ be the Cantor set and $x\in C$.
Then there exists unique $x_k\in \{0,2\}$ such that $x=\sum_{k\in \mathbb N}\frac{x_k}{3^k}$. Conversely every $x$ with this representation lies in C.
If $C$ would be countable then there would exists a injective map $f:C\rightarrow \mathbb N$.
Let $f^{-1}(i)=\sum_{k\in \mathbb N}\frac{x_{ik}}{3^k}$ or $f^{-1}(i)=\emptyset$.
Set $z_k=2-x_{i_k}$, then z=$\sum_{k\in \mathbb N}\frac{z_k}{3^k}$
Then $z$ is in the cantor set but z isn't in the pre-image of $f$.
Questions:
- Shouldn't it be $z_k=2-x_k$?
- I understand that z lies in C but why it is not in the pre image of f?
Thanks in advance
It shouldn't be $2-x_k$ but rather $2-x_{k,k}$. What you are trying to accomplish is a diagonalization. You are attempting to be different from every one of a countable set of objects and the way you do that is by making sure that from step $k$ onwards you differ from object $k$.
This is a very general approach and works even for uncountable amounts of objects except you have to be a bit more careful and obviously you need "larger" objects.
As for the second part that exactly follows from the fact that in step $k$ when you define $z_k$ you make sure you are not $f^{-1}(k)$ since you differ in the $k$'th digit.