The curve defined implicitly by the equation $$xy^3+x^3y=4,$$ has no horizontal tangent.
In the solution they did as follow :
$$xy^3+x^3y=4\implies y^3+x3y^2y'+3x^2y+x^3y'=0\implies y'=\frac{3x^2y-y^3}{3xy^2+x^3}.$$
Question
why they can say that $y=y(x)$ ? It looks a bit strange for me. In other word, why can I say that $$xy^3+x^3y=4\implies \exists y\in \mathcal C^1(\mathbb R): xy(x)^2+x^3y(x)=4\ \ ?$$
Let $f(x,y)=x^3y+xy^3$. Then $\nabla f(x,y)=\bigl(3(x^2+y^2)y,3(x^2+y^2)x\bigr)$. So, $\nabla f(x,y)=(0,0)$ at $(0,0)$ and only there. But $(0,0)$ does not belong to your curve. So, at a point $(x_0,y_0)$ of the curve with a horizontal tangent, since $\nabla f(x_0,y_0)\ne(0,0)$ but the first component of $\nabla f(x_0,y_0)$ is $0$ (since $\nabla f(x_0,y_0)$ is orthogonal to the tangent vector), then the second component is not $0$. Therefore, the implicit function theorem allows you to deduce that, near $(x_0,y_0)$, $y$ can be expressed as a function of $x$.