Suppose $Y$ is a Banach space, $M$ is a subspace of $Y$ , is it true that $\sup\{d(x,M):||x||=1,x \in Y\} = 1$?
Given that $d(x,M):=\inf\{||x-y||:y \in M\}$
Suppose $Y$ is a Banach space, $M$ is a subspace of $Y$ , is it true that $\sup\{d(x,M):||x||=1,x \in Y\} = 1$?
Given that $d(x,M):=\inf\{||x-y||:y \in M\}$
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In general no: If $M \subset Y$ is dense, then the supremum is simply $0$. However, in the case that $M$ is a proper closed subspace of $Y$, the supremum is indeed $1$ by Riesz's lemma.