I was working my way through some number theoretic proofs and being a newbie am stuck on this problem :
Let a $\geq$ 2 and p be any positive integers , then prove that :
$(a-1) \mid(a^p - 1) $
$ (a-1)^2 \mid (a^p - 1) $ iff $ (a-1) \mid p $
My Attempt (Inadequate):
First Part :
$(a-1) \mid(a^p - 1) $
We know that $(a^p - 1)$ can be written as $(a-1).(a^{p-1} + \cdots + 1)$
$\Rightarrow$ $(a^p - 1)$ is of the form (a-1).$\lambda$
$\Rightarrow$ (a-1) $\mid$ $(a^p - 1)$
Hence , Proved
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Second Part:
I have absolutely no clue and that is why ask for a hint and not a solution
My Question :
I am unable to make any concrete progress . Even a decent hint would be acceptable so that I can build on that ...
Hints: The first can be proven easily by induction on $p$.
The second you can prove by showing (again by induction on $p$) that $$a^p-1\equiv (a-1)p\pmod {(a-1)^2}.$$
(Of course, this second proof could be used to prove the first part.)